Both paedobaptists – those that adhere to infant baptism – and credobaptist – those that do not adhere to infant baptism – have said,
One of the most persuasive objections and one which closes the argument for a great many people is that there is no express command to baptize infants and no record in the New Testament of a clear case of infant baptism (Bryan Chapell, Why Do We Baptize Infants?, pg. 15)
Although this is the case, what we will see with an argument from silence (argumentus ex silentio) is that infant baptism is presumed in the New Testament with a lack of contrary and convincing reason.
What is an argument from silence?
From the University of Massachusetts History Methodology: Outline of Procedure we read that an argument from silence “means that the thing in question [Infant Baptism] is not mentioned in the available documents.” What is more, an argument from silence,
If [Infant Baptism] were mentioned, then with the usual qualifications it would be proved to exist…The basic point is that if [Infant Baptism] did not in fact exist, then the only trace which that fact could leave, in the evidence, is the silence of the evidence as to [Infant Baptism]. At the same time, any such conclusion must be provisional. If documents are later found that do mention [Infant Baptism], then [Infant Baptism] is after all proved to exist. A single positive may overturn any number of negatives. A single sound refutes all silences.
The strength of an argument from silence is dependent upon the following factors:
- The likeliness of the silent argument,
- A lack of contrary evidence, and
- The quantities of documents sampled.
In further authenticating infant baptism, let us now consider these three points in measuring the strength of this argument.
Likeliness of Infant Baptism
As said before , we can reasonably presume that infants were indeed included in the administration of baptism due to the unity of the covenants and the similarities of circumcision and baptism. When we consider that Jewish parents would have applied the covenant sign of circumcision upon their infant children for thousands of years, we can likely presume that they would have administered baptism in the same way.
This is why Bryan Chapell argues,
The removal of any sign of the covenant from believers’ children would have been an immense change in practice and concept for Jewish families.
He goes on to ask,
Consider how the head of a Jewish household would have reacted when others in the household (including servants and resident relatives) were baptized on the basis of his faith while his own children were denied the covenant sign (Chapell, pg. 16).
This is why we can presume that such a change in the administration of God’s covenantal sign to infants should have been recorded with either a command or example by the authors of the New Testament (Robert Reymond, A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith, pg. 936).
As we will see, this is not the case.
Lack of an Explicit Command
In refuting an argument from silence all that is necessary is the production of contrary evidence. In providing such a source, Fred Malone argues,
The actual precepts concerning baptism can apply only to disciples because repentance and faith are necessary for New Covenant baptism.” Malone further adds, “The precepts of confessor’s baptism expressly prohibit infants from the covenant sign by their positive delineation of confessing subjects (Matt. 28.18-20). To let silence concerning infant baptism overpower the clear precepts of confessors’ baptism is a dangerous hermeneutical method and a clear violation of the regulative principle (A String of Pearls Unstrung)
However, I would like to argue that Fred Malone wrongly concludes that Matthew 28.18-20 presupposes faith and repentance in order to offer baptism to someone. If I am correct in my conclusion, then the utilization of this passage as a means of justifying believers baptisms alone is invalid.
Writing in response to this objection, Dr. Gary Strawbridge provides the following reasons why this is the case (Covenantal Infant Baptism: An Outlined Defense)
Mathew 28.18-20
First, the grammar of the text itself does not necessitate that the self-conscious act of believing and repenting precedes the administration of baptism.
In the Greek, we read, “πορευθέντες (go) οὖν (therefore) μαθητεύσατε (make disciples) πάντα (all) τὰ ἔθνη (the nations), βαπτίζοντες (baptizing) αὐτοὺς (them)…” Within the participle phrase, βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς, the referent (αὐτοὺς, them) cannot grammatically be related with μαθητεύσατε,(make disciples) because this word is a verb and not a noun. To press such a meaning would defy basic English Grammar.
Consequently, we cannot press the point that baptizing refers only to those who become disciples.
Second, to contend that baptism is to be administered to confessing individuals – from out of the nations – goes beyond the grammar of the text as well.
For instance, in verse 19, τὰ ἔθνη (the nations) is in the accusative case and is consequently the direct object of the verb μαθητεύσατε, which means it is receiving the action of the verb. Therefore, the ASV, NAS, NAB, RSV, NRSV, NKJV, and ESV translate this text, “make disciples of all nations,” not “make disciples out of all the nations.” No preposition, such as ek (out of), exists within this text that allows us to press such a conclusion.
Third, based upon these previous two observations, a person goes beyond the text to conclude that baptizing follows discipling.
This is why B.B. Warfield said we cannot read this passage “as if the words ean maqheteusantes baptizete, whereas the passage actually standing μαθητεύσατε βαπτίζοντες, merely demands that the discipling shall be consummated in, shall be performed by means of baptism” (From Strawbridge).
A similar observation was made by Daniel Doriani, who said, “‘Baptizing them’…belongs in the context of the Great Commission. It is an aspect of the discipleship of the nations.” Doriani goes on to say,
Strictly speaking, Jesus commanded his disciples to make disciples, not to baptize. In the original, the command to ‘make disciples’ is modified by three participles: ‘going,’ ‘baptizing,’ and ‘teaching’ (“Matthew 28.18-20 and the Institution of Baptism,” in The Case for Covenantal Infant Baptism, pg. 36)
Consequently, disciples are made by baptizing and teaching them as we “go.”
This is why I think we can conclude with Robert Reymond,
If one wishes to argue from the requirements stipulated in the Great Commission as to which view more faithfully adheres to the Great Commission, it is the paedobaptists view, since antipaedobaptists do not baptize their infant children (pg. 945).
And besides, if baptism serve’s as a sign and seal of the inward righteousness of confessing adult believers – as professed by Fred Malone and company, then this sacrament fails miserably because there are many today who have been baptized and are no longer following Christ.
In addition, there are no explicit commands to refuse infant baptism or an explicit command to baptize those who make a profession of faith alone.
Lack of Explicit Example
Not only is an explicit command lacking in refuting infant baptism, so too is an explicit example. If anything, baptism examples within the New Testament lend further support to the argument from silence (Jonathan M. Watt, “The Oikos Formula” in The Case for Covenantal Infant Baptism, pgs. 70-84).
Many passages, such as Acts 16.15; 16.33; 18.8; (cf. Acts 11.14) and 1 Cor. 1.16 provides ample evidence that suggests infants were included in the baptism of entire households. Although these household examples do not close the case on infant baptism, they do place “the burden of proof on those who would claim that children were not participants in oikos (household) baptisms” (Ibid., 84).
This is the case for two reasons.
First, the usage of “oikos” (i.e. household) by Luke and Paul not only preceded them, but “was adopted from he OT cultic language (particular circumcision) and employed in the Christian rite of baptism and has the same form and meaning as circumcision” (Jeremias, The Origins of Baptism, pg. 21).
Even though this does not guarantee that children were present in every household baptism, as Joachim Jeremias observed, “Paul and Luke could under no circumstances have applied the oikos formula, if they had wished to say that only adults had been baptized” (Ibid., 21-22).
What Jeremias is getting at is that Luke and Paul would have used another word or phrase if they really desired to distance baptism from circumcision.
Second, the culture of that day also implies that children were considered a part of the family (Watt, 84.). From The Greco-Roman World of the New Testament Era, we discover that,
The first-century household among the Greeks and Romans was defined in terms of the head of the head of the family. The oldest male in the blood line of the family was called the paterfamilias by the Romans. Every living thing over which he held authority was part of the household: relatives by blood, women who married blood relatives, slaves, former slaves, even livestock (pg. 82).
In contrast to the Western notion of individuality, during the time of the writing of the New Testament a strong sense of family solidarity existed.
It is for these two reasons that the burden of proof resides with those that do not adhere to infant baptism in refuting it.
So, for Craig Johnson to assume that Bryan Chapell’s wrongly assumed the presence of infants in these examples is a misnomer. If anything Craig Johnson has wrongly “presumed” that all accounts of household baptisms follow the same pattern of Acts 11.14, where baptism follows faith.
This presumption is refuted by Acts 16.30-34 alone. Dr. Chapell pithily observed of these verses,
The account of the baptism of the Philippians jailer’s household is particularly instructive because of the precise description supplied by Luke, the writer of Acts. Luke says that all of the jailer’s household was baptized (v. 33), but then he uses a singular verb to describe who rejoiced and believed in God that night (v. 34). The jailer himself believed (singular verb) and his whole house was baptized. Sadly, this important distinction in the account is not reflected in some of our modern translations (pg. 19).
Moreover, the existence of some examples of baptisms that followed a confession of faith does not ipso facto (as a result of a particular fact) rule out infant baptism. This is the case for three reasons (Reymond, pg. 936).
- There are only a few instances of baptism being administered within the New Testament (John Murray, Christian Baptism, pg. 69),
- Those baptized in the New Testament are considered first generation believers. As a result, three fourths of the recorded baptisms logically include adult individuals who were entering into a New Covenant (R.C. Sproul, Essential Truths of the Christian Faith, pg. 228.), and
- The remaining one fourth of all recorded baptisms in the New Testament includes the entirety of homes (Ibid., pg. 228).
With this being the case, we can reason that children were included within the administration of baptism in light of the proofs provided above. In addition to the lack of contrary evidence and Scriptural examples lend further credence to infant baptism.
History
When considering the sampling of evidence from the first four hundred years of church history, the strength of the argument from silence is enhanced.
In concluding his work on Infant Baptism: In the First Four Centuries, Joachim Jeremias’ stated,
A thorough examination of all the sources makes it quite clear that in this whole period of four centuries there were to be found only two theologians who advocated a postponement of baptism, both of them moreover, with reservations (pg. 98)
This historical evidence is further validated in Jeremias’ response to Kurt Aland’s rebuttal in The Origins of Baptism, as well as Greg Johnson’s The Prevalence and Theology of Infant Baptism in the First Four Centuries, East and West.
This massive sampling of church history enhances the argument from silence and calls into question the refusal of infant baptism. The administration of baptism to infants is not illogically deduced, but rather handed down from the Apostles themselves. In fact, writing in the third century the early church scholar Origen once said,
The church has received the tradition from the apostles to give baptism to little children (Robert Rayburn, What About Baptism?, pg. 52)
May we too follow within the footsteps of the apostolic witness.
(For further historical evidence, in particular the witness of the early church fathers, see Jeremias, pg. 41; Reymond, pgs. 943-944, and Louis Berkhof, Systematic Theology, pg. 635).
Other Parts of my series on An Apologia of Infant Baptism:
Formulating a Doctrinal Position
Covenant: Defined and Delivered
Unity of the Covenants
What Does Circumcision and Baptism Mean?
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